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Hiring someone is unethical to Kantians because you're treating them as a means?


Kant's second formulationAre the first and second forms of the categorical imperative actually equivalent?Does Rand appropriate Kant's Categorical Imperative?How does Kant link the three subordinate formulations of the categorical imperative to the universal law?How do you treat retailers without using them as a means?Does Sartre's disdain of some professions contradict Kant's Categorical Imperative?“Repugnant conclusions” following from Kant's imperative to never use humans only as means to an end?In Kant, how do Universalizability and Freedom relate to each other?If a moral law contains “If-then/Unless-then” clauses, is it still Kantian?Applying the Mere Means principleHow is Kantian's Universality Formulation identical to his Humanity Formulation (Principle of Ends)?













4















I read it is unethical to hire someone because it breaks the second categorical imperative which is to treat people as an ends. If by hiring someone to do something you are treating them as a means to get a job done and therefore it is unethical. Are there any counters to this?










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    4















    I read it is unethical to hire someone because it breaks the second categorical imperative which is to treat people as an ends. If by hiring someone to do something you are treating them as a means to get a job done and therefore it is unethical. Are there any counters to this?










    share|improve this question









    New contributor




    Dylan Yung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.






















      4












      4








      4


      1






      I read it is unethical to hire someone because it breaks the second categorical imperative which is to treat people as an ends. If by hiring someone to do something you are treating them as a means to get a job done and therefore it is unethical. Are there any counters to this?










      share|improve this question









      New contributor




      Dylan Yung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.












      I read it is unethical to hire someone because it breaks the second categorical imperative which is to treat people as an ends. If by hiring someone to do something you are treating them as a means to get a job done and therefore it is unethical. Are there any counters to this?







      kant






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      Dylan Yung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      share|improve this question









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      edited 23 hours ago







      Dylan Yung













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      asked 23 hours ago









      Dylan YungDylan Yung

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      New contributor





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          1 Answer
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          12














          You're missing an important word. The second formulation of the categorical imperative in the Groundwork is:




          Act in such a way that you always treat humanity, whether in your own person or in the person of any other, never simply as a means, but always at the same time as an end.




          The key phrase here is "never simply." Kant has no problem with entering into mutually beneficial rational contracts.



          Maybe stated in another way, using someone as a mere means is abusing their rationality by getting them to act in a way inconsistent with how they would act when fully informed.



          In fact in the Metaphysics of Morals, this is how Kant understands sex and marriage, because Kant views sex as using another person as the means to your gratification, and he thinks this is only justifiable insofar as you both rationally consent to the arrangement -- and make it permanent.



          For instance, Kant sees it as an abuse of a ticket seller to pay with a credit card you know is stolen. Or conversely, to sell seats you know you don't have the rights to.



          For Kant, employment itself should be a rationally entered into arrangement between the employer and employee where they understand what they agree to.



          References



          http://www.utm.edu/staff/jfieser/class/300/categorical.htm
          http://alexanderpruss.com/145/KantOnMarriage.html



          See Also



          Kant's second formulation






          share|improve this answer























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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          12














          You're missing an important word. The second formulation of the categorical imperative in the Groundwork is:




          Act in such a way that you always treat humanity, whether in your own person or in the person of any other, never simply as a means, but always at the same time as an end.




          The key phrase here is "never simply." Kant has no problem with entering into mutually beneficial rational contracts.



          Maybe stated in another way, using someone as a mere means is abusing their rationality by getting them to act in a way inconsistent with how they would act when fully informed.



          In fact in the Metaphysics of Morals, this is how Kant understands sex and marriage, because Kant views sex as using another person as the means to your gratification, and he thinks this is only justifiable insofar as you both rationally consent to the arrangement -- and make it permanent.



          For instance, Kant sees it as an abuse of a ticket seller to pay with a credit card you know is stolen. Or conversely, to sell seats you know you don't have the rights to.



          For Kant, employment itself should be a rationally entered into arrangement between the employer and employee where they understand what they agree to.



          References



          http://www.utm.edu/staff/jfieser/class/300/categorical.htm
          http://alexanderpruss.com/145/KantOnMarriage.html



          See Also



          Kant's second formulation






          share|improve this answer























          • An object lesson in how to answer here. I must take notice. .

            – PeterJ
            14 hours ago















          12














          You're missing an important word. The second formulation of the categorical imperative in the Groundwork is:




          Act in such a way that you always treat humanity, whether in your own person or in the person of any other, never simply as a means, but always at the same time as an end.




          The key phrase here is "never simply." Kant has no problem with entering into mutually beneficial rational contracts.



          Maybe stated in another way, using someone as a mere means is abusing their rationality by getting them to act in a way inconsistent with how they would act when fully informed.



          In fact in the Metaphysics of Morals, this is how Kant understands sex and marriage, because Kant views sex as using another person as the means to your gratification, and he thinks this is only justifiable insofar as you both rationally consent to the arrangement -- and make it permanent.



          For instance, Kant sees it as an abuse of a ticket seller to pay with a credit card you know is stolen. Or conversely, to sell seats you know you don't have the rights to.



          For Kant, employment itself should be a rationally entered into arrangement between the employer and employee where they understand what they agree to.



          References



          http://www.utm.edu/staff/jfieser/class/300/categorical.htm
          http://alexanderpruss.com/145/KantOnMarriage.html



          See Also



          Kant's second formulation






          share|improve this answer























          • An object lesson in how to answer here. I must take notice. .

            – PeterJ
            14 hours ago













          12












          12








          12







          You're missing an important word. The second formulation of the categorical imperative in the Groundwork is:




          Act in such a way that you always treat humanity, whether in your own person or in the person of any other, never simply as a means, but always at the same time as an end.




          The key phrase here is "never simply." Kant has no problem with entering into mutually beneficial rational contracts.



          Maybe stated in another way, using someone as a mere means is abusing their rationality by getting them to act in a way inconsistent with how they would act when fully informed.



          In fact in the Metaphysics of Morals, this is how Kant understands sex and marriage, because Kant views sex as using another person as the means to your gratification, and he thinks this is only justifiable insofar as you both rationally consent to the arrangement -- and make it permanent.



          For instance, Kant sees it as an abuse of a ticket seller to pay with a credit card you know is stolen. Or conversely, to sell seats you know you don't have the rights to.



          For Kant, employment itself should be a rationally entered into arrangement between the employer and employee where they understand what they agree to.



          References



          http://www.utm.edu/staff/jfieser/class/300/categorical.htm
          http://alexanderpruss.com/145/KantOnMarriage.html



          See Also



          Kant's second formulation






          share|improve this answer













          You're missing an important word. The second formulation of the categorical imperative in the Groundwork is:




          Act in such a way that you always treat humanity, whether in your own person or in the person of any other, never simply as a means, but always at the same time as an end.




          The key phrase here is "never simply." Kant has no problem with entering into mutually beneficial rational contracts.



          Maybe stated in another way, using someone as a mere means is abusing their rationality by getting them to act in a way inconsistent with how they would act when fully informed.



          In fact in the Metaphysics of Morals, this is how Kant understands sex and marriage, because Kant views sex as using another person as the means to your gratification, and he thinks this is only justifiable insofar as you both rationally consent to the arrangement -- and make it permanent.



          For instance, Kant sees it as an abuse of a ticket seller to pay with a credit card you know is stolen. Or conversely, to sell seats you know you don't have the rights to.



          For Kant, employment itself should be a rationally entered into arrangement between the employer and employee where they understand what they agree to.



          References



          http://www.utm.edu/staff/jfieser/class/300/categorical.htm
          http://alexanderpruss.com/145/KantOnMarriage.html



          See Also



          Kant's second formulation







          share|improve this answer












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          answered 22 hours ago









          virmaiorvirmaior

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          25.4k33997












          • An object lesson in how to answer here. I must take notice. .

            – PeterJ
            14 hours ago

















          • An object lesson in how to answer here. I must take notice. .

            – PeterJ
            14 hours ago
















          An object lesson in how to answer here. I must take notice. .

          – PeterJ
          14 hours ago





          An object lesson in how to answer here. I must take notice. .

          – PeterJ
          14 hours ago










          Dylan Yung is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









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